psychology

Multilingual Schizophrenia

When schizophrenia is placed in the same set of Quizlet flashcards as adult enuresis (don't search that up), antisocial personality disorder, and kleptomania, it almost seems normal. Schizophrenia almost lessens the gravity of all of the aforementioned disorders, almost seems to decrease their average severity. Because of this, schizophrenia somehow faded to the back of my mind. (You searched up adult enuresis, didn't you?)

Then, I saw this:

This video reminded me of the harshness of schizophrenia, of the difficulties patients face in their everyday lives. It also got me wondering this: How will schizophrenia manifest itself in multilinguals?

Initially, I thought schizophrenia would show its form in a twisted amalgamation of every language the patient speaks, in a way should make sense but doesn't. 
But, as in most cases, initial hypothesises are very wrong and so was this one.

On this Reddit discussion, most reported either hearing voices in both languages or hearing voices in their primary, first language. With children that had been taught multiple languages simultaneously, the former seemed to be more common.

I don't think anyone has a clear answer, though. But I think this is part of what makes clinical and abnormal psychology particularly interesting subjects—that they're still subjects that are very much developing. 

further reading

General introduction to schizophrenia: http://study.com/academy/lesson/phases-of-schizophrenia-prodromal-active-and-residual.html
More research and publications on schizophrenia: https://www.researchgate.net/search.Search.html?query=schizophrenia&type=publication
Brief article on this topic: http://www.schizophrenic.com/news/schizophrenia-research/bilingual-individuals-schizophrenia-symptoms-may-show-language
Experiment detailing the correlation of schizophrenic symptoms and language disturbances: http://www.europsy-journal.com/article/S0924-9338(15)31288-8/pdf

Did It Really Happen?

A short note on existence and false memories.

In the 20th century, doctors believed that babies were unable to feel pain. It wasn't until the late 1980s that they had begun administering anaesthesia while performing surgeries on them. Obvious indications of pain were displayed when the painful surgery would be performed in babies, such as crying, thrashing, violent behaviours, and other such expressions. This was ignored. 

Individuals are unlikely to remember specific events before the age of 2 and a half years. Any memory before that age is likely to be false. This phenomenon of being unable to remember childhood events is often referred to as childhood amnesia, and the average age that humans are able to create and store memories is four years.

Did the pain really exist, then? Yes, babies may have felt pain during the surgery, but if they are unable to recall it—did they really feel pain? Disclaimer: Obviously, performing surgery without anaesthetic on babies is inhumane; I'm not a sadist. 

Without memories, there would be near nothing to give proof of the existence of an event. Video cameras can give proof to an event, but, with the rising of the digital age, even videos can be manipulated.

I've often heard stories about my younger (and, evidently, more foolish and far more naïve) self, and, most of the time, I find myself in an awkward situation in which I am unable to remember any of the events that Mom would be laughing about. To me, they didn't exist—and they never will.
If all affected individuals of that event (all "witnesses") were to forget about it, would it still exist?

However, it may also be argued that most events trigger other events, causing a chain reaction known as the butterfly effect. As such, there is the possibility that an event could leave a lasting impact on the world without anyone having remembered it, thus consolidating its existence.

This is my question: If the event was neither able to nestle its way into someone's memories, nor able to trigger a chain reaction, would it still exist?